God Was Manifest in the Flesh

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Who was manifest in the flesh? An examination of 1 Timothy 3.16.

Modern textual criticism claims that the word 'God' is not in 1 Timothy 3.16, and that the verse actually reads 'he was manifest in the flesh'. Since all people who have ever lived have been manifest in the flesh, does the Greek support a change from the Textus Receptus here?

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